On Mon, 26 Apr 2004 14:20:26 -0400
Rahul Siddharthan <firstname.lastname@example.org> wrote:
> Chris Pressey said on Apr 26, 2004 at 10:28:44:
> > Rahul Siddharthan <email@example.com> wrote:
> > > Chris Pressey wrote:
> > > > > A single Greek word for which there isn't an equivalent word
> > > > > in English-- and I mean exact equivalent, including all the
> > > > > possible meanings and nuances that this word can express in
> > > > > the Greek language-- should be enough as an example, right?
> > > >
> > > > Unfortunately, no, it's not enough.
> > > >
> > > > A single Greek word for which there isn't an equivalent English
> > > > word, phrase, sentence, paragraph, essay, book, or library would
> > > > be enough though.
> > >
> > > Which has very little relevance to programming languages.
> > I disagree; I think the parallel to optimization in different
> > languages is quite strong.
> The question was whether you can do something in one language that you
> can't in another. If one interprets that your way (wanting an example
> of a word in Greek that can't be expressed by an entire library in
> English), the answer is clearly no. If one talks about conciseness
> and optimisation, obviously that's a different question.
But optimization *was* the original topic which spawned the question.
My "challenge" was, in part, trying to illustrate that things do not get
lost in translation because languages are *non-equivalent* (Danny's /
Sapir & Whorf's original claim) but because they *optimize differently*.
This certainly seems (to me) to apply to human and programming languages